UTME 2026 Readiness Assessment (Eng; Phy; Chem; Maths) – Set 3

UTME Use of English - 60 Questions

COMPREHENSION: Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow It.

PASSAGE I

In 1962, a team of scientists produced a special radio station that had a range of fifteen miles. Even though communication was being accomplished in space at a range of more than a million times this distance, the new radio station caused much excitement among scientists. The reason: its power supply was a ‘battery’ made of bacteria. For the first time, practical amounts of electricity were being produced by a form of life and put to use. ‘Biocell’ the new power supply had a liquid fuel containing tiny forms of life that changed the fuel directly into electric energy.

This was far more than an interesting experiment. The biocell is being developed as producer of electricity for radios, for signals to guide ships, for lighting and for other uses. Though the working biocell is only a few years old, some scientists feel that it will one day produce power cheaply as is now being done by other methods, and that the biocell will use materials that would otherwise be considered a waste. Early biocells were powered with sugar, but a wide range of fuels can be used. Work is being done using sea water to feed the bacteria.

Electricity from living cells is no new idea. Man experienced the strange ‘shock’ produced by some fish even before electricity was really discovered. Then in time, there were other discoveries. Benjamin Franklin found that lightning in the sky was electricity. Lulgi Galvani found some electricity in the muscles and nerves of animals.

But the African catfish produces far more electricity than most other living creatures. And another fish, the electric eel, well named, for it has an even greater electric charge. Research works also discovered that even humans produce small amount of electricity in their bodies. Our hearts produce a very small amount that can be measured, so do our brains. The biocell is completely new in the field of power production and, as yet, no mass-produced models have begun to replace the older types of batteries. It might be wondered, then, what the excitement is all about

1. The writers posture, as conveyed in the statement Electricity from living cells is no new idea, can be described as ______

A. ineffectual B. contentious C. logical D. unguarded.

2. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. Scientists felt that biocells would produce very costly energy.
B. Biocells, at the beginning, derived their energy from sugar.
C. Sugar and fuel were initially used as sources of energy for biocells.
D. Biocells were forms of power used by the scientists.

3. The inventors of biocell justified the need for it by saying that it would

A. develop ways for changing biocelis into fuel for use
B. yield a source of energy without much spending
C. produce electricity for ad types of machines
D. produce signals to guide all ships and other vessels.

4. According to the passage, electricity was first discovered in ____

A. hearts and brains    B. muscles of animals    C. lightning    D. fish.

5. What is the source of power for the biocell mentioned in the passage?

A. Lightning      
B. Muscles and nerves of animals
C. Bacteria
D. Electric catfish

However, man’s ... 6... [A. knowledge of B. attitude to C. commitment to D. opinion of]

promoting and defending change in a deliberate effort to establish ...7... [A. customs B. companies C. trade-zones D. variations]

that stimulate advancement for man’s concern is proving unfavourable to the climate with threatening . . . 8. . [A. repercussions    B. clouds    C. pressure    D. implication].

Human-induced climate change has awakened widespread concern across the globe. As a matter of fact, climate change is now ...9... [A. an acceptable B. aforemost C. the only D. the last] global issue.

It is a major test of Africa’s ...10... [A. popularity B. energy C. ingenuity D. incapability].

The fourth Assessment Report (AR4) of the Intergovernmental Panel of Climate Change (IPCC) confirmed that human actions are changing the earth’s climate and creating major disturbances in human . . . 11. . . [A. geography B. societies C. systems D. life] and ecosystems.

The IPCC reports that the world has warmed by an average of 0.76°C since pre-industrial times. The rising global ..12... [A. command B. demand C. warning D. supply] for energy and the adverse changes in the climate put the earth and its inhabitants in a catch situation.

Again, if the effects of climate change on each were commensurate with the level of greenhouse  ...... .13........ [A. structure B. paints C. emulsion D. emissions] it spews out, perhaps Africa would have been spared and would probably be just an amused spectator.

But as it is, this is not the case. Here again, we see well-meaning global citizens appealing for the rest of the world to take responsibility for the problems of Africa, a strategy that cannot, thus far, be termed .. .14... [A. notable B. liable C. credible D. flexible].

In each of questions below, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence.

15. If he were here, it could be more fun.

A. He was expected but did not show up to make the occasion lively.
B. There was no fun because he was not present
C. He did not show up and so the occasion lacked much fun.
D. He was being expected to supply more fun.

16. The secretary said that the postponement of the meeting was due to unforeseen circumstances.

A. The date of the meeting was shifted as a result of unexpected reasons.
B. The meeting’s date was put off for strange reasons.
C. The meeting was called as a result of obstacles hitherto unknown.
D. The meeting broke off as a result of unusual difficulties.

17. The hunter has a bird’s-eye view of the animals.

A. He views animals from a high position
B. He views the bird’s eye
C. He views the birds on tree with one eye.
D. He watches animals and birds closely.

18. Even though Susan was the last in the examination, her result wasn’t too different from what had been expected.

A. Her result was poor.
B. Her result was a disappointment
C. Her result was as expected
D. She had not been serious with her studies.

19. Mrs. Adasu does all her work with more haste, less speed.

A. She accepts whatever she does with more haste and speed.
B. She approaches whatever she does hurriedly.
C. She addresses everything she does very quickly to avoid mistakes
D. She does everything carefully to avoid mistakes.

In each of questions below, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrases in italics.

20. Since its inception in 1983, the newspaper has attracted thousands of readers.

A. renaissance    B. coming    C. commencement    D. publication.

21. Mrs. Asio wanted her sister to stop being so detached.

A. friendly    B. careless    C. indifferent    D. passionate

22. Lantana dwelt in a ruined cottage on the hillside.

A. sat    B. worked    C. slept    D. lived.

23. The mistake brought the show to an ignominious end.

A. a good    B. a palatable    C. a disgraceful    D. a satisfactory.

24. He compliments me on my way of doing things.

A. complements    B. imitates    C. disgusts    D. praises.

25. The girl is angry with her friend who had ensnared her into this relationship.

A. tricked    B. encouraged    C. forced    D. enslaved.

26. Their new house was roofed with corrugated sheets.

A. folded    B. iron    C. aluminium    D. corrupted.

27. The stockbroker said it was an astute move to sell the shares then.

A. a bad    B. a shrewd    C. an unprofitable    D. an insincere.

28. The principal described Oche as the most tactful person he had ever worked with.

A. passionate    B. discreet    C. hard-working    D. innovative.

29. The old woman is suffering from dementia.

A. lucidity    B. senility    C. insanity    D. sagacity.

In each of questions below, choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word or phrase in italics.

30. The warring communities were coerced into negotiating a settlement.

A. driven    B. compelled    C. persuaded    D. pressured.

31. His father served as a mercenary in the army.

A. preacher    B. regular    C. recruit    D. officer.

32. Jummai is cruel to her husband.

A. harsh    B. brutal    C. passionate    D. ferocious.

33. The teacher who beat the student was treated with mercy.

A. disrespect    B. contempt    C. vengeance    D. kindness.

34. His wife hates his garrulous attitude.

A. outspoken    B. unfriendly    C. reticent    D. thoughtful.

35. Agoshito is a callow youth’, said the teacher.

A. an ignorant    B. an experienced    C. an idle    D. an organized.

36. What you are asking me to do is a herculean task.

A. a strenuous    B. a demanding    C. a lovely    D. an easy.

37. Nkechi was a novice when she was first employed.

A. manager    B. clerk    C. supervisor    D. professional.

38. ‘I do not trust him’, he said, in a rare moment of candour.

A. reproach    B. dishonesty    C. frankness    D. fairness.

39. Mrs Akunilo looks anaemic today.

A. strange    B. sick    C. weak    D. strong.

In each of questions 66 to 85 choose the option that best completes the gap.

40. When his car tyre …….... on the way, he did not know what to do.

A. has burst     B. had burst     C. bursted     D. burst.

41. Lami’s father ... as a gardener when he was young, but now he is a driver.

A. had been working    B. use to work C. has worked D. used to work.

42. It is essential that you wash your clothes every .........

A. monthnight      B. bimonthly      C. fortweek     D. fortnight

43. It is important that you clear the refuse in front of your house every .........

A. fourtnight     B. fortnight     C. fourthnight     D. forthnight.

44. The policemen became suspicious as the hoodlums ......... in their office.

A. ferreted     B. ferretted     C. ferreted about     D. ferretted about.

45. Suara needn’t come with us, ...? .

A. does she     B. will she     C. can she     D. need she.

In each of questions below, choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.

46. bubble

A. guy     B. bull     C. bumper     D. gurgle

47. weight

A. whale     B. white     C. whet     D. wrythe

48. leach

A. gear    B. cedar    C. cheer    D. death

49. conversion

A. conVErsion     B. CONversion     C. converSION     D. converSion

50. meditative

A. meDItative    B. mediTAtive    C. MEditative    D. meditaTIVE.

These questions are based on The Lekki Headmaster By Kabir Alabi Carba

51. What does the phrase "joined the crowd working to further advance the United Kingdom" suggest about Mr. Bepo’s perspective?

A. He felt he would be part of a larger group making progress.
B. He believed the United Kingdom was too advanced already.
C. He thought the United Kingdom was in need of his help.
D. He was avoiding progress and development.

52. What does the phrase "no employee should dream big about comfort or bank on job security" suggest?

A. Employees should expect job security and comfort.
B. Employees should not rely on job security and comfort for their future.
C. Employees should aim for managerial roles for comfort.
D. Employees should dream of becoming business owners.

53. The phrase “the newer your cab, the more attractive it is to commuters” implies:

A. Commuters prefer older cabs because they are cheaper.
B. Newer cabs attract more passengers because of their perceived quality.
C. Commuters do not care about the age of the cab.
D. Newer cabs are not as desirable to commuters.

54. The phrase “he kept the option open” implies that Bepo:

A. Closed his mind to the idea of starting a business.
B. Decided to focus on only one option.
C. Was willing to consider all possible solutions.
D. Was certain about which option to choose.

55. What was Bepo's main reservation about starting his own school?

A. He did not have enough experience in managing schools.
B. He did not want to leave his family behind in Nigeria.
C. He was unsure if he would have enough capital to start a standard school.
D. He lacked interest in education.

56. What does Bepo mean when he says, "If you beat my height, you can’t beat my eyes"?

A. He is confident in his ability to catch students cheating.
B. He believes no one can be taller than him.
C. He thinks his eyesight is poor.
D. He does not like short students.

57. What is the figurative meaning of "the kojusoko braid pointed its tip towards the direction of the husband"?

A. It symbolizes marital submission in Yoruba culture.
B. It is a type of rebellious hairstyle.
C. It means the woman is disrespectful to her husband.
D. It represents wealth and prosperity.

58. What does the expression "Every parent wants respect, and many seek to keep their pride" suggest?

A. Parents are always proud of their children.
B. Parents value their dignity and how they are perceived by others.
C. Parents do not want to be involved in their children’s education.
D. Parents prefer to be feared rather than respected.

59. What does the name “Mr. Owala” given to Mr. Ayesoro suggest?

A. It was a name of respect.
B. It was a compliment about his intelligence.
C. It was a mocking nickname based on his facial marks.
D. It was a title given to teachers in the school.

60.  What does the phrase "every effort to allay the girl’s fear was unsuccessful" mean?

A. The teachers successfully calmed Bibi down.
B. The school ignored Bibi's fear.
C. No one was able to make Bibi feel safe around Ayesoro.
D. Bibi eventually overcame her fear.

UTME PHYSICS (40 QUESTIONS)

1. A landlord has eight 40W electric light bulbs, four 60W bulbs and two 100W bulbs in his house. If he has all the points on for five hours daily and if PHCN charges 5k per unit, his bill for 30 days is ____

A. N 5.70    B. N 7.23    C. N 3.65    D. N 8.05

2. Which of the following statements is correct? The reading of pressure on a mercury barometer is independent of ______

A. the cross-sectional area of the tube
B. the atmospheric pressure
C. the density of mercury
D. the temperature of mercury

3. What are the units of thermal conductivity?

A. kg.m.sec²     B. Joule sec^-1 m^-1 K^-1     C. kg.m     D. Newton sec^-1 m^-1 K^-1

4. A concave lens of focal length 20cm forms an image the size of the object. The object distance is ______

A. 100 cm     B. cm     C. 20 cm    D. cm

5. 


In a resonance tube experiment which is illustrated above, the velocity of sound in air is 327.68 m/s, the frequency of the tuning fork used is therefore ______

A. 128 Hz    B. 256 Hz    C. 512 Hz    D. 768 Hz

6. In an electrolysis experiment, a cathode of mass 5g is found to weigh 5.01 g after a current of 5 A flows for 50 seconds. What is the electrochemical equivalent of the deposited substance?

A. 0.00004 g/C     B. 0.00002 g/C     C. 0.02500 g/C     D. 0.05000 g/C

7. Which of the following statements is correct? The magnetized state of an iron bar can be destroyed completely by ______

A. heating the bar to a high temperature
B. breaking the bar
C. connecting opposite poles with a small piece of iron
D. placing the bar inside a strong magnetic field

8. Which of the following is the correct definition of half-life?

A. The average life-time of a radioactive material
B. The time it takes a radioactive material to decay to half of its original quantity.
C. Half the period a radioactive material decays completely
D. Half of the decay constant

9. A body is released from rest and allowed to fall freely from a given height under gravity. The kinetic energy at its half-way point is ______

A. a little above half of ifs initial energy
B. a little below half of its initial energy
C. a half of its initial energy
D. a little above its initial energy

10. The bulb of a motorcycle head-lamp is marked 40W, 6V. The resistance of the filament when it is switched on is _____

A. 6²/40 ohms    B. 40/6² ohms    C. 40/6 ohms    D. 6 x 40 ohms

11.


The figure above shows a current I flowing in a copper wire situated in the magnetic field existing between the pole-pieces of a horse-shoe magnet. Which of the following statements ‘s correct?

A. The wire will experience a force in the direction into the paper.
B. The wire will experience a force in the direction out of the paper
C. The wire will vibrate in the direction into and out of the paper
D. The wire will move in the direction of the field, i.e. towards the S-pole

12. It is known that a neutron exists in a light atomic nucleus, Which of the following also exists in the nucleus?

A. an electron     B. a β-particle     C. an α particle     D. a proton

13. An electric cell has an internal resistance of 2 ohms. A current of 0.5 A is found to flow when a resistor of 5 ohms resistance is connected across it. What is the electromotive force of the cell?

A. 5 volts    B. 3.5 volts    C. 2.5 volts    D. 1 volt

14.


For the wave motion represented in the figure above, the wavelength is given by

A. p    B. q     C. r     D. s

15. An air bubble rises from the bottom to the top of a water dam which is 40m deep. The volume of the bubble just below the surface is 2.5 cm. Find its volume at the bottom of the dam, if atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 10 m of water.

A. 10.0 cm³      B. 20 cm³      C. 1.6 cm³      D. 0.5 cm³

16. Which of the following statements about radioactivity are true?

(i) Alpha particle is positively charged
(ii) Beta particle is negatively charged
(iii) Gamma ray is neutral
(iv) Beta particle has the same mass as helium atom
(v) Gamma ray is charged.

A. i, ii, iii, iv only     B. iv and v only     C. i, ii and iii only     D. i, ii and v only

17. 


A uniform beam HK of length 10 m and weighing 200 N is supported at both ends as shown above. A man weighing 1000 N stands at a point P on the beam. If the reactions at H and K are respectively 800 N and 400 N, then the distance HP is  ______

A. 4 m     B. m     C. 3 m     D. m

18. Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:1. They experience forces which impart to them acceleration in the ratio 2:9 respectively. Find the ratio of the forces the masses experience.

A. 1:4    B. 2:1    C. 2:3    D. 2:5

19. The inner diameter of a small test tube can be measured accurately using a _____

A. micrometer screw gauge   B. pair of divider    C. meter rule    D. pair of venier calipers

20. Which of the following statements is correct? Silvered walls of a vacuum flask are used to prevent ______

A. heat loss due to conduction
B. vacuum loss
C. heat entry into the inner flask due to convection
D. heat loss due to radiation

21. A particle of mass 10^-2 kg is fixed to the tip of a fan blade which rotates with angular velocity of 100 rads^-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2 m, the centripetal forces is _____

A. 2 N    B. 20 N    C. 200 N    D. 400 N

22. On which of the following is the operation of a moving coil galvanometer based?

A. Magnetic effect of electric current
B. Electromagnetic Induction
C. Chemical reaction produced by electricity
D. Force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field

23. A weight of 1000 grams hangs from a lever 20 cm to the right of the fulcrum. At the left is a 500- gram weight 20 cm from the fulcrum; and a 200-gram weight x cm away from the fulcrum. What is the value of x that will make the lever balanced?

A. 50 cm    B. 20 cm    C. 10 cm    D. 30 cm

24.


An electrical circuit is connected up as shown; which of the following is the correct value of the current through the 1 ohm resistance?

A. A      B. A      C. A     D. 3A

25. All the heat generated in a 5 ohm resistor by 2 A flowing for 30. seconds is used to evaporate 5 g of a liquid at its boiling point. Which of the following is the correct value of the specific latent heat of the liquid?

A. 120 J     B. 60 Jg^-1     C. 120 Jg^-1     D. 1500J

26. When the temperature of a liquid is increased, its surface tension

A. decreases   B. increases    C. remains constant    D. increases then decreases.

27. If the stress on a wire is 107 Nm^-2 and the wire is stretched from its original length of 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm, the Young’s modulus of the wire is

A. 5.0 x 10⁴ Nm^-2     B. 5.0 x 10⁵ Nm^-2     C. 2.0 x 10⁸ Nm^-2     D. 2.0 x 10⁹ Nm^-2

28. The speed of light in air is 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1. If the refractive index of light from air-to-water is , then which of the following is the correct value of the speed of light in water?

A. 4 x 10⁸ ms^-1     B. 2.25 x 10⁸ ms^-1     C. X 10⁸ ms^-1     D. 2.25 x 10⁸ ms^-2

29. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength?

A. Radio waves     B. X rays     C. infra-red     D. Blue light

30.


The figure above shows a see-say which is exactly in balance. The weights of the people sitting on it are 50 kg, X kg and 15 kg as shown. They sit at distances of m, m and 2m from the pivot respectively. The value of X is ______

A. 30     B. 35     C. 70     D. 26 ¼

31. 

The diagram shows a lift pump with valves at P and Q. During a downward stroke of the piston,

A. Both valves are open     B. P is open while Q is closed     C. P is closed while Q is open     D. Both valves are closed.

32. A lead bullet of mass 0.05 kg is fired with a velocity of 200 ms^-1 into a lead block of mass 0.95 kg. Given that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is

A. 50 J    B. 100 J    C. 150 J    D. 200 J

33. A solid weighs 10.0N in air, 6.0 N when fully immersed in water and 7.0 N when fully immersed in a certain liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid.

A.      B.      C.      D.

34. A gas at a volume V₀ in a container at pressure P₀, is compressed to one fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if it maintains its original temperature T?

A.       B.       C. P_o      D. 5P_o

35. A ball of mass 0.1 kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10 ms^-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is
[g = 10 ms^-2]

A. 5 J    B. 10 J     C. 15 J    D. 20 J

36. In the J-tube, Y and X are on the same horizontal level and 30 cm³ of air trapped above Y when the atmospheric pressure is 75 cm Hg. Calculate the volume of air trapped above Y when 15 cm Hg is now poured into the limb above X.

A. 15 cm³     B. 25 cm³     C. 35 cm³     D. 45 cm³

37.

The figure above represents a frictionless pulley system in which a weight, W is in equilibrium with a weight of 40N. Find the value of W

A. 13.3 N    B. 20.0 N    C. 40.0 N    D. 80.0 N

38. A car of mass 800 kg attains a speed of 25 m^s-1 in 20 seconds. The power developed in the engine is

A. 1.25 x 10⁴ W     B. 2.50 x 10⁴ W     C. 1.25 x 10⁶ W      D. 2.50 x 10⁶ W

39. A piece of substance of specific heat capacity 450J kg^-1k^-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20 m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10 ms^-2]

40. When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force on the tyres is

A. a disadvantage because it is in the direction of motion of the car
B. a disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of motion of the car
C. an advantage because it is in the direction of motion of the car.
D. An advantage because it is in the opposite direction of motion of the car.

UTME CHEMISTRY (40 QUESTIONS)

1. Which of the following organic compounds would decolourize bromine water?

A. Benzene.    B. Cyclobutane.    C. Hexane.    D. Pentane.

2. The functional groups present in the compound above are

A. alkene and halo-group
B. hydroxyl and chloro-group
C. alkene and chloro-group
D. hydroxyl and halo-group.

3. Which of the following reactions is common to all hydrocarbons?

A. Combustion.    B. Addition.    C. Polymerization.    D. Condensation

4. 

The reaction above is best described as ________

A. esterification    B. condensation    C. saponification    D. neutralization.

5. Bronze is a mixture of _______

A. Cu and Mg.    B. Cu and Sn.    C. Cu and Zn.    D. Cu and Pb.

6. An increase in the pressure exerted on a gas at a constant temperature results in ______

A. a decrease in the number of effective collisions
B. a decrease in volume
C. an increase in the average intermolecular distance
D. an increase in volume.

7. The IUPAC name of the compound    is ________


A. 2—amino hexanoic acid.
B. 2—amino—4—methyl pentanoic acid.
C. 2, 4—dimethyl butanoic acid.
D. 4—amino pentanoic acid.

8. The electronic configuration of Mg²⁺ is ______

A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p²   
B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s²   
C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶   
D. 1s² 2s² 2p⁴

9. 

2H_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2H₂O_(g)

In the reaction above, what volume of hydrogen would be left over when 300 cm³ of oxygen and 1000 cm³ of hydrogen are exploded in a sealed tube?

A. 200 cm³.    B. 400 cm³.    C. 600 cm³.    D. 700 cm³.

10. Which of the following statements about thermoplastic material is correct? They

A. do not melt on heating.
B. harden on heating.
C. decompose on heating.
D. soften and melt on heating

11. Which of the following is a primary amine?

12. How many isomers has C₃H₆Cl₂?

A. 2     B. 3     C. 4     D. 5

13. How many atoms are present in 6.0 g of magnesium? [Mg = 24, NA = 6.02 x 10² mo1^-1]

A. 1.20 x 10²²    B. 2.41 x 10²²    C. 1.51 x 10²³    D. 3.02 x 10²³

14. The main function of limestone in the blast furnace is to ________

A. act as catalyst.       B. act as reducing agent.      C. remove impurity.      D. supply carbon (IV) oxide.

15. A hydrocarbon compound contains 92.3% carbon. Determine its empirical formula. [H = 1.00; C = 12.0]

A. CH.     B. CH₂.     C. CH₃.     D. C₂H₃.

16. Which of the following materials is classified as a non-biodegradable pollutant?

A. Animal hide.    B. Paper.    C. Plastic.    D. Wood.

17. Two elements X and Y combine to form a compound with formula X₂ Y₃. Which of the following representations would fit the configurations of X and Y’?

Compound  x               y
A.                2,2             2,3
B.                2,6             2,5
C.              2,8,2            2,8,3
D.              2,8,3            2,6

18. 

I. It has a varied composition from one place to another.
II. Its constituents can be separated by physical means
III. it contains unreactive noble gases.

Which of the above shows that air is a mixture?

A. I and II only    B. II and III only   C. I and III only    D. I, ll and III

19. Which of the following raw materials is used in a plastic industry?

A. Ethene.    B. Methane.    C. Calcium.    D. Hydrogen

20. Which of the following statements about fine chemical is correct? It

A. is injurious to health.
B. has low degree of purity.
C. is produced in relatively small amount.
D. can be stored for a long time.

21. If the elements X and Y have atomic numbers 11 and 17 respectively, what type of bond can they form?

A. Dative.   B. Covalent.    C. Ionic.   D. Metallic.

22.

I. Evaporation.
II. Sublimation,
III. Diffusion.
IV. Brownian motion.

Which of the above can correctly be listed as evidences for the particulate nature of matter?

A. I and III only    B. II and IV only   C. I, Il and III only D. I, II, III and IV

23. Which of the electrons in the following orbital will experience the greatest nuclear attraction?

A. 1s electron of helium    B. 1s electron of potassium    C. 2s electron of boron    D. 2s electron of carbon

24. Potassium trioxochlorate(V) has a solubility of 1.5 mol dm^-3 at 45^oC. On cooling this solution to a temperature of 20^oC, the solubility was found to be 0.5 mol dm^-3. What mass of KCIO₃ was
crystalized out? [K = 39, Cl = 35.5, O = 16]

A. 1.00g.     B. 1000g.    C. 12.25 g.     D. 122.50 g.

25. Which of the following methods can be used to obtain pure water from a mixture of sand, water and methanoic acid?

A. Neutralisation with NaCH followed by filtration.
B. Neutralisation with NaOH followed by distillation.
C. Fractional distillation.
D. Filtration followed by distillation.

26.

50 cm³ of a gas was collected over water at 10^oC and 765 mm Hg. Calculate the volume of the gas at s.t.p. if the saturated vapour pressure of water at10^oC is 5mm Hg.

A. 49.19 cm³    B. 48.87 cm³    C. 48.55 cm³   D. 48.23 cm³

27. A nuclide emits a beta-particle   . In the process the atomic number

A. increases by 1 while the mass number remains constant
B. decreases by 2 while the mass number remains constant
C. remains constant while the mass number decreases by 2
D. remains constant while the mass number increases by 1.

28. Which of the following will produce a solution with pH less than 7 at equivalent point?

A. HNO₃ + NaOH.    B. H₂SO₄ + KOH.    C. HCI + Mg(OH)₂.    D. HNO + KOH.

29. The mass of an element is 27 and its atomic number is 13. What is the composition of the nucleus of its atom?

A. 13 electrons and 14 protons
B. 13 neutrons and 14 protons
C. 13 protons and 14 neutrons
D. 13 electrons and 14 neutrons.

30. Chlorination of water for town supply is carried out to ______

A. make the water colourless
B remove germs from the water
C. make the water tasteful
D. remove odour from the water.

31. A hydrogen atom which has lost an electron contains

A. one proton only
B. one neutron only
C. one proton and one neutron
D. one proton, one electron and one neutron.

32. Which of the following is used to study the arrangement of particles in crystal Lattices?

A. Alpha-particles.   B. Beta-particles.   C. Gamma-rays.   D. X-rays

33. A metal X forms two chlorides with the formulae XCI₂ and XCI₃

Where is X in the Periodic Table?

A. Group II     B. Group III     C. a-block     D. s-block

34. If an atom is represented as which of the following deductions is correct’?

A. It contains 20 protons     B. It forms a covalent chloride     C. It atomic number is 39     D. It is an alkali metal

35. One of the characteristics of transition metal is _______

A. reducing ability
B. ductility
C. ability to conduct electricity
D. formation of coloured ions.

36. Which of the following electron transitions results in the emission of energy?

A. 3p to 3s    B. 3p to 4p    C. 2s to 2P    D. 1s to 2s.

37. The solubilities of different solutes in a given solvent can be compared by ______

A. plotting their solubility curves on separate axes
B. plotting their solubility curves on the same axes
C. plotting some of the solubility curves on the x-axis and others on the y-axis
D. plotting their solubility curves on the x-axis only.

38. Which of the following pollutants is associated with brain damage?

A. Carbon (lI) oxide.    B. Radioactive fallout.    C. Biodegradable waste.    D. Sulphur (IV) oxide.

39. The chemicals used to soften hard water involves the addition of ______

A. insoluble sodium compounds which form soluble solutions of calcium and magnesium ions
B soluble sodium compounds which form soluble solutions of calcium and magnesium ions
C. soluble sodium compounds which form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium ions
D. insoluble sodium compounds which form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium ions.

40. How many electrons are in the L shell of  ?

A. 2     B. 5     C. 8     D. 16

UTME MATHEMATICS (40 QUESTIONS)

1. 

7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years. If 6 new pupils of average age 11 years join the class, what is the average age of the pupils now in the class?

A. 13 years    B. 12 years 7½ months     C. 13 years 5 months    D. 13 years 10 months

2. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = 3x² - 2x + 5 at the point (1, 6) is ______

A. 4     B. 1   C. 6    D. 5

3. A bag contains 5 black balls and 3 red balls. Two balls are picked randomly without replacement . What is the probability that a black and a red ball are picked?

A.    B.      C.      D.

4. 


The histogram above shows the ages of the victims of a pollution. How many people were involved in the pollution?

A. 15   B. 18    C. 20    D. 21

5. Given y = x³ − x² − 4, find

A. 3x - 2      B. 3 - 2x²     C. 3x² - 2x     D. 3 - 2x

6. Which of the following fractions is less than one third?

A.     B.     C.     D.

7. Find the value of x satisfying the equation    -    <    + 

A. x 7½      C. x < 7½      D. x < -5

8. A group of 14 children received the following scores in a reading test:

35, 35, 26, 26, 26, 29, 29, 29, 12, 25, 25, 25, 25, 17.

What was the median score?

A. 29    B. 26    C. 24.4     D. 25

9. Given y = x³ − x² − 4,  find    at  x  =  4

A. 38    B. 39    C. 40   D. 41

10. Simplify:  -

A.       B.       C.       D.

11.


The result of tossing a fair dice 120 times is summarized above. Find the value of x.

A. 19    B. 20    C. 21    D. 222

12. By selling an article for  N 45.00 a man makes a profit of 8%. For how much should he have sold it in order to make a profit of 32% ?

A. N 55.00     B. N 59.00     C. N 63.00     D. N 58.00

13. A micrometre is defined as one millionth of a millimetre. A length of 12,000 micrometres may be represented as _______

A. 0.012 m     B. 0.0012 m     C. 0.0o012 m     D. 0.000012 m.

14. Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the units digit, and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits.

A. 24    B. 42     C. 74     D. 47

 15. Simplify    52.4 - 5.7 - 3.45 - 1.75

A. 41.4    B. 41.5   C. 42.1   D. 42.2

16.

In the figure above, find x in terms of a, b and c.

A. 180°- (a + b + c)     B. 180°- (a + c)     C. a - b + c     D. a + b

17. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5. Find the standard deviation

A.      B.      C. 2     D. 3

18. Find the derivative of y = sin²(5x) with respect to x.

A. 10 sin 5x cos 5x     B. 5 sin 5x cos 5x     C. 2 sin 5x cos 5x    D. 15 sin 5x cos 5x

 19. In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both. 125 offer Biology and 110 Mathematics. How many offer Biology but, not Mathematics?

A. 95    B. 80    C. 125    D. 110

20. Given y = x³ − x² − 4, find at x = -1

A. 3     B. 4     C. 5     D. 6

 21. lf    = 2x - 3 and y = 3 when x = 0, find y in terms of x.

A. 2x² - 3x      B. x² - 3x      C. x² - 3x - 3       D. x² - 3x + 3

22. Factorise 3x³ + 4x² - 13x + 6 completely, given that x - 1 is a factor.

A. (x - 1)(x - 3)(x + 2)      B. (x - 1)(x + 3)(3x -2)      C. (x - 1)(x +3)(3x + 2)      D. (x - 1)(x - 3)(3x + 2)

23. The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r : t. In 1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25% and that of a packet of sugar by 10%. Their new ratio is now ______

A. 40r : 50t     B. 44r : 50t     C. 25r : 22t     D. 55r : 44t

24. If log₂ y = 3 - Iog₂ x^½ , find y when x = 4

A. 8     B.      C.      D. 4

25. Given y = x³ − x² − 4, find    at  x =  0

A. 0     B. 1    C. 2    D. 3

26. A trader bought goats for N 4000 each. He sold them for N 180,000 at a loss of 25%. How many goats did he buy?

A. 60  B. 50   C. 45   D. 36

27. In one and a half hours, the minute hand of a clock rotates through an angle of ______

A. 90^o      B. 180^o      C. 540^o      D. 450^o

28. If y =   find 

A.      B. 2x + x²     C. 2x - x²     D.

29. Simplify

A. 84.7   B. 70.7    C. 217.7    D. 168.7

30. A circle with a radius 5 cm has its radius increasing at the rate at 0.2 cms^-1. What will be the corresponding increase in the area?

A. 2 π   B. 5 π   C. π   D. 4 π

31.

In the figure above, find the area of xyzw

A. 60 cm²     B. 54 cm²     C. 27 cm²     D. 54.2 cm²

32. Find the range of values of x for which  <img title="\frac{x+2}{4}-\frac{2x-3}{3}< 4" src="https://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?\frac{x+2}{4}-\frac{2x-3}{3}

A. x > -6    B. x > -3     C. x < 8    D. x < 4

33. If sin x^o = , what is sin (90 - x)^o ?

A.       B.  1 -       C.      D.

34.

In the figure above, the chords XY and ZW are produced to meet at T such that VT = WT,  ∠ZYW = 40^o and  ∠YTW = 30^o . What is YXW?

A. 50^o   B. 70^o    C. 35^o    D. 115^o

35. Solve for x in the equation x³ - 5x² - x + 5 = 0

A. 1, -1 or 5         B. 1, 1 or -5         C. -1, 1 or- 5         D. 1, 1 or 5

36. An isosceles triangle of sides 13 cm, 13 cm, 10 cm is inscribed in a circle. What is the radius of the circle?

A.   cm     B. 13 cm     C. 8 cm     D. 7 cm

37. A sum of money invested at 5 % per annum simple interest amounts to $ 285.20 after 3 years. How long will it take the same sum to amount to $ 434.00 at 7½ % per annum simple interest?

A. 7½ years     B. 10 years     C. 5 years     D. 12 years

38. Solve: - =  

A. x = -1 or 3     B. x = 1 or 3     C. x = 1 or -5     D. x = -1 or 5

39. In ΔXYZ, XY = 3cm, XZ = 5cm and YZ = 7cm. If the bisector of XYZ meets XZ at W, what is the length of XW ?

A. 1.5 cm     B. 2.5 cm     C. 3 cm     D. 4 cm

40. Find the maximum value of y in the equation y = 1 - 2x - 3x²

A.     B.     C.     D.