UTME 2026 Readiness Assessment (Eng; Phy; Chem; Maths) – Set 2

UTME Use of English - 60 Questions

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE I
Curiosity is as clear and definite as any of our urges. We wonder what is in a sealed telegram or in a letter which someone else is absorbed or what is being said in the telephone booth or in low conversation. This inquisitiveness is vastly stimulated by jealousy suspicion, or any hint that we ourselves are directly or indirectly involved in. But there appears to be a fair amount of personal interest in other people’s affairs even when they do not concern us except as a mystery to be unravelled or a tale to be told. The reports of a divorce suit will have ‘news value’ for many weeks. They constitute a story like a novel, a play or a moving picture. This is not an example of pure curiosity. However, since readily, identify ourselves with others’ their joys and despair then become our own concern.

Adapted from Harris, W. and L.G Wilson (1963) The University Handbook New York Holt Rineht and Winston

1. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

A. Suspicion often stimulates inquisitiveness.
B. Every human conduct often gives rise to curiosity.
C. Our environment always inhibits curiosity.
D. Curiosity is effective where there is no room for it.

2. According to the passage, people wonder what is in a sealed telegram because.

A. it has taken long for the telegram to arrive.
B they are naturally curious about things.
C. the information is vital to them.
D. it is their responsibility to know.

3. The word absorbed, as used in the passage, means

A. disturbed   B. engrossed    C. covered    D. entailed

4. According to the passage, curiosity is heightened when _______

A. a story resembles a moving picture.
B. we relate to the emotions of others.
C. we sense a personal involvement.
D. we read reports of a divorce suit.

These questions are based on The Lekki Headmaster By Kabir Alabi Carba

6. What does the term "foot-dragging" imply in the context of Mr. Bepo’s decision?

A. He was walking slowly because of tiredness.
B. He was procrastinating or delaying the decision.
C. He was confused about his future plans.
D. He was being physically slow due to illness.

7. What does the phrase “a whooping gbemu” refer to in the context?

A. A large sum of money
B. A small, insignificant amount of money
C. A sum of money that is impossible to spend
D. A debt that needs to be paid off

8. What does “Stardom’s management has jazzed him” mean?

A. They have provided excellent career opportunities for him.
B. They have bewitched or overly influenced him.
C. They have encouraged him to leave for better prospects.
D. They have given him financial incentives to stay.

9. What does “there must be a way around the challenges” suggest?

A. The challenges are impossible to overcome.
B. There is a solution to every challenge.
C. The challenges will get worse.
D. Challenges should be avoided at all costs.

10. What job did Mr. Bepo secure in the UK, and how much was the salary?

A. Teaching job, £1,000 per month
B. Teaching job, £3,600 per month
C. Nursing job, £3,600 per month
D. Business job, £10,000 per month

11. What business idea did Mr. Bepo consider that he felt could be started with minimal capital?

A. Establishing a school
B. Farming and food production
C. Commercial transportation
D. Retail and distribution

12. Why might Mr. Audu think that “Stardom’s management has jazzed him”?

A. He believes that Mr. Bepo is staying out of loyalty to the school.
B. He believes that Mr. Bepo has been manipulated or overly influenced by the school.
C. He thinks Mr. Bepo is afraid to move to a new country.
D. He assumes that Mr. Bepo does not want more financial security.

13. What does the phrase "anger bottled within" suggest about Bepo’s emotions?

A. He was openly expressing his anger.
B. He was trying to suppress his frustration.
C. He was indifferent to the situation.
D. He was speaking loudly out of rage.

15. The phrase "the family never remained the same again" after the DNA test suggests:

A. The family moved to a new house.
B. A serious conflict changed the family’s dynamics.
C. They decided to restart the visa process.
D. They became wealthier than before.

For these questions, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the question.

16. Mr. Rufus bore the brunt in the last promotion examination.

A. Mr Rufus failed the examination woefully.
B. Mr. Rufus excelled in the examination.
C. Mr. Rufus was excited about the examination.
D. Mr. Rufus toyed with the examination.

17. My friend is well on nowadays

A. My friend is financially sound.
B My friend is well known to people.
C. My friend is now well.
D. My friend has lost focus.

18. The retired army officer did a yeoman’s service to the nation.

A. His activity brought disrepute to the nation
B. His service to the nation was not exemplary.
C. He was showered with the responsibility of the yeoman.
D. He was very loyal to the nation.

19. He suddenly found himself in the thick of the situation.

A. He did not agree with the situation.
B. He used his experience Lo settle the situation.
C. He saved himself that of the situation.
D. He found himself deeply involved in the situation.

20. Olu and Ado are about to come to blows.

A. They are about to agree with each other.
B. They are about to accept other people’s opinion.
C They are about to hit each other
D. They are about to disagree with other people’s opinion.

21. By refusing the offer, he has just cut down his own throat

A. He has made a big mistake.
B. He has made the right decision.
C. He has given up on his idea.
D. He has used the knife on his throat.

22. These job cuts are just the thin end of the wedge.

A. Job cuts are very rampant.
B. Job cuts are inconclusive.
C. Job cuts are the beginning of unpleasant situations.
D. Job cuts are the beginning of healthy rivalries.

23. Jumai will do well if he was given a fair crack of the whip.

A. She would do well if she was given a fair whip.
B. She would excel if she used the whip well.
C. She would do well if she was given equal opportunity.
D. She would do well if she was made to cry.

24. Her death was a bolt from the blue to us.

A. Her death bolted us together.
B. Her death caused confusion.
C Her death sealed our hopes.
D. Her death was unexpected.

25. The students were nosing around.

A. They were roaming about.
B. They were searching for information.
C. They were playing around.
D. They were disseminating information.

For these questions, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word or phrase in italics

26. It is important not to let mistakes blight your life

A. damage    B. impart    C. improve    D. ruin

27. The film was shot in decrepit police station.

A. an improved    B. a damaged    C. an impoverished    D. a dilapidated.

28. Jumoke is fond of carping her sister.

A. praising    B. joking With    C. complaining about    D. faulting.

29. A cup of coffee invigorated him.

A. destroyed    B. energized    C. angered    D. debilitated.

30. It is ludicrous to suggest that she was a government agent.

A. odd    B. exciting    C. farcical    D. sensible.

31. The idea makes me cringe.

A. quiver    B. tremble    C. resolute    D. writhe.

32. His book was one of those books that galvanised democracy.

A. stimulated    B. encouraged    C. dissuaded    D. promoted

34. The nation is in a period of economic flux

A. modification    B. change    C. fluidity    D. stability

35. Our son was highly active and exuberant.

A. subdued     B. fulsome    C. lively    D. bright

For these questions choose the options that best complete the gap(s).

36. The book will sell in ……………

A. hundreds of thousands    B. a hundred thousand    C. hundreds of thousand    D. hundred thousands.

38. After a three-day meeting, two presidents issued a ....... calling for peace.

A. bulletin    B. memorandum    C. communiqué    D. directive.

40. The students have not come back from the school farm, ………….?

A. hadn’t they    B. have they    C. didn’t they    D. isn’t it

42. You will need…………... to help the investigations.

A. this information    B. this informations    C. these information    D. these informations.

For these questions, choose the option nearest in meaning the word or phrase in italics

43. Mr. Ojo has a fickle character.

A. a genuine    B. a stable    C. an imperfect    D. an unpredictable

44. He picked up the phone expecting to hear the chairman’s gruff voice.

A. gracious    B. musical    C. husky    D. polite.

45. It has been a fraught day.

A. difficult    B. pleasant    C. wonderful    D. solemn.

46. She scowled furiously at his back as he walked away.

A. whispered    B. grimaced    C. screeched    D. screamed.

47. The use of this equipment should obviate the problem

A. prevent    B. improve    C. promote    D. worsen.

For these questions, choose the options that have the same vowel sound as the ones represented by the letter(s) underlined.

48. reprieve

A. rich    B. police    C. queer    D. probity

49. door

A. food    B. cough    C. sure    D. board

50. famous

A. soup    B. cook    C. pilot   D. colonel

In each of questions below, the words in capital letters have the emphatic stress. Choose the option to which the given sentence relates.

51. The car CRUSHED him.

A. Who did the car crush?
B. Did a car crush him?
C. What crushed him?
D. Did the car injure him?

In each of questions below, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence.

53. If he went to London, he would see the Queen.

A. He did not go to London and did not see the Queen.
B. He would like to see the Queen when he goes to London.
C. When he goes to London, he will see the Queen.
D. He did not see the Queen when he went to London

55. The manager paid us in hard currency.

A. We were paid in a strong and stable currency.
B. We were paid in dollars and pound sterling.
C. We were paid in new notes.
D. We were paid in foreign currency.

56. The elders rebuked Olu for taking issue with his principal.

A. Olu was scolded for acting in collusion with his principal.
B. Olu was reprimanded for arguing with his principal.
C. Olu was blamed for issuing a statement denying his principal.
D. Olu was cautioned for shouting at his principal.

58. The organization is constantly in a state of flux.

A. There are periodic changes in the organization.
B. The organization is facing a difficult period.
C. The organization is experiencing good times.
D. The organization is moribund.

59. His meteoric rise to fame surprised everyone.

A. His rise to fame was only temporary.
B. People were amazed at his rapid success.
C. He became successful very suddenly.
D. He rose to the top quite unexpectedly.

60. The politician was pilloried by the press for his inflammatory remarks.

A. The politician was snubbed by the press for his remarks.
B. The politician was criticized by the press for his remarks.
C. The politician was closely questioned by the press for his remarks.
D. The politician was ridiculed by the press for his remarks.

UTME - PHYSICS (40 QUESTIONS)

1. When the temperature of a liquid is increased, its surface tension

A. decreases   B. increases    C. remains constant    D. increases then decreases.

2. Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when 2 kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling water to a block of ice without heat loss. [specific heat capacity of copper = 400 J Kg^-1K^-1 Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3 x 10⁵ Jkg^-1]

3. In the J-tube, Y and X are on the same horizontal level and 30 cm³ of air trapped above Y when the atmospheric pressure is 75 cm Hg. Calculate the volume of air trapped above Y when 15 cm Hg is now poured into the limb above X.

A. 15 cm³     B. 25 cm³     C. 35 cm³     D. 45 cm³

4. The equation of a wave travelling along the positive x-direction is given by y = 0.25 x 10^-3sin(500t – 0.025x). Determine the angular frequency of the wave motion.

A. 0.25 x 10^-3 rads^-1    B. 0.25 x 10^-1 rads^-1     C. 5.00 x 10² rads^-1     D. 2.5 x 10³ rads^-1

5. A solid weighs 10.0N in air, 6.0 N when fully immersed in water and 7.0 N when fully immersed in a certain liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid.

A.      B.      C.      D.

6.

I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure
II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead to increase in the boiling point.
III. When the external pressure is increased, the boiling point increases.
IV. Dissolved substances in pure water decreases the boiling point.

Which combination of the above are peculiarities of the boiling point of a liquid?

A. I, II and III      B. I, II, III and IV      C. I, II, IV      D. II, III and IV

7. The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere of diameter 20 cm is polished. The portion will therefore form a _____

A. concave mirror of focal length 5 cm
B. concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
C. convex mirror of focal length 5 cm
D. convex mirror of focal length 20 cm

8.

The diagram represents a transverse electromagnetic wave travelling with speed 3.0 x 10⁸ ms^-1. What is the frequency of the wave?

A. 3.0 x 10⁷ Hz     B. 9.0 x 10⁷ Hz     C. 1.0 x 10⁹ Hz     D. 3.0 x 10⁹ Hz

9. A gas at a volume V₀ in a container at pressure P₀, is compressed to one fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if it maintains its original temperature T?

A.       B.       C. P_o      D. 5P_o

10. If a sound wave goes from a cold-air region to a hot-air region, its wavelength will _____

A. increase     B. decrease     C. decrease and then increases     D. remain constant.

11. The velocities of light in air and glass are 3.0 x 10⁸ ms^-1 and 2.0 x 10⁸ ms^-1 respectively. If the angle of refraction is 30^o, the sine of angle of incidence is __

A. 0.33     B. 0.50     C. 0.67     D. 0.75

12. The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has a frequency of 40 Hz. How many overtones are there between 40 Hz and 180 Hz?

A. 4      B. 3      C. 2      D. 1

13. A man stands 4 m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance between him and his new image is ______

A. 3 m     B. 5 m     C. 6 m     D. 10 m

14. An astronomical telescope is said to be normal adjustment when the ________

A. eye is accommodated
B. focal length of objective lens is longer than that of eye piece.
C. final image is at the near point of eye
D. final image is at infinity.

15. A galvanometer has a resistance of 5 Ω By using a shunt wire of resistance 0.05 Ω , the galvanometer could be converted to an ammeter capable of reading 2 A. What is the current through the galvanometer?

A. 2 mA   B. 10 mA   C. 20 mA   D. 25 mA

16. A piece of substance of specific heat capacity 450J kg^-1k^-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20 m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10 ms^-2]

17. When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, the fraction of its volume above the water surface will _____

A. remain the same    B. increase    C. decrease    D. increase then decrease

18. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is least energetic?

A. Infra-red     B. X-ray     C. Ultra-violet rays     D. Gamma rays

19.

In the circuit above, the ammeter reads a current of 5.0 A when R = 8 Ω and reads 7.0 when R = 5 Ω. The value of the unknown resistance X is ___

A. 10.0 Ω    B. 7.5 Ω    C. 5.0 Ω    D. 2.5 Ω

20. If is the uncertainty in the measurement of the position of a particle along the x-axis and is the uncertainly in the measurement of the linear momentum along the x-axis, then the uncertainty principle relation is given as ______

A. Δx ΔPx ≥ h      B. Δx ΔPx = 0      C. Δx ΔPx < 0      D. Δx ΔPx = ∞

21. The core of an efficient transformer should consist of laminated pieces of metal in order to ___

A. increase the heat produced by increasing the eddy current.
B. increase the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
C. reduce the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
D. reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current.

22.

In the series a.c. circuit shown, the p.d. across the inductor is 8 r.m.s and that across the resistor is 6 V r.m.s. The effective voltage is

A. 2 V    B. 10 V    C. 14 V    D. 48 V

23. 

The diagram shows a magnet X with its south pole moved along a soft-iron bar PQ in the direction shown. After some time, the poles at P and Q respectively are ______

A. North-North    B. North-South    C. South-North    D. South-South

24. At what frequency would a 10H inductor have a reactance of 200 Ω ?

A. π/200 Hz    B. π/100 Hz   C. 10/π Hz    D. 100π  Hz

25. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film with some of the particles being considerably deflected. This shows that ______

A. A gold nucleus contains protons, neutrons and electrons uniformly distributed in a tiny volume.
B. The gold nucleus is positively charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume
C. The gold nucleus emitted alpha particles
D. The gold nucleus is concentrated in a tiny volume and contains alpha particles

26. A semi-conductor diode is used in rectifying alternating current into direct current mainly because it

A. allows current to flow in either direction
B. is no-linear
C. offers a high input resistance
D. allow current to flow only in one direction

27.

The diagram shows the prism arrangement in a _____

A. binocular    B. spectrometer    C. periscope    D. projector.

28. A hand bag containing some load weighing 162 N is carried by two students each holding the handle of the bag next to him. If each handle is pulled 60^o to the vertical, find the force on each student’s arm.

A. 324 N    B. 162 N    C. 121 N    D. 81 N

29. In Fleming’s right-hand rule, the thumb, the forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at right angles represent respectively, the

A. motion, the field and the induced current
B. induced current, the motion and the field
C. field, the induced current and the motion
D. induced current, the field and the motion.

30. In semi-conductor, the carriers of current at room temperature are

A. electrons only     B. electrons and holes     C. holes only     D. electrons and ions

31.


What are the values of p and q respectively in the equation above?

A. 10 and 20    B. 12 and 24    C. 20 and 10   D. 24 and 12

32. A 3000 W electric cooker is to be used on a 200 V mains circuit. Which of the fuses below can be used safely with the cooker?

A. 2 A   B. 5 A    C. 10 A    D. 15 A

33. In a series, R-L-C circuit at resonance, the voltage across the resistor and the inductor are 30 V and 40 V respectively. What is the voltage across the capacitor?

A. 30 V    B. 40 V    C. 50 V    D. 70 V

34. Steel is more suitable for permanent magnet than iron because the former ____

A. is easily demagnetized by shaking vigorously
B. is an alloy of many metals
C. is easily magnetized by alternating current through one cycle.
D. retains magnetism more than iron.

35. Gamma rays are produced when _______

A. high velocity electrons are abruptly stopped in metals.
B. energy changes occur within the nucleus of atoms.
C. energy changes occur within the electronic structure of atoms.
D. electrons are deflected in very strong magnetic fields.

36. What is the speed of a particle of mass 10^-27 kg whose wavelength is 10^-8 m? [h = 6.63 x 10^-34 Js]

A. 6.63 ms^-1    B. 66.30 ms^-1    C. 663.00 ms^-1    D. 6630.00 ms^-1

37. Four cells each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance of 4 Ω are connected in parallel. What is the effective e.m.f and internal resistance of the combination?

A. 6.0 V, 16 Ω    B. 6.0 V, 1 Ω    C. 1.5 V, 4 Ω    D. 1.5 V, 1 Ω

38. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500 g is extended by 20 cm with an applied force F. If the stone leaves with a velocity of 40 ms^-1, the value of F is

A. 4.0 x 10⁴ N    B. 4.0 x 10³ N    C. 2.0 x 10³ N    D. 4.0 x 10² N

39. At a fixed point below a liquid surface, the pressure downward is P₁ and the pressure upward is P₂. It can be deduced that ______

A. P₁ = P₂    B. P₁ > P₂    C. P₁ < P₂     D. P₁ > P₂

40. A simple pendulum has a period of 17.0 s. When the length is shortened by 1.5 m, its period is 8.5 s. Calculate the original length of the pendulum.

A. 1.5 m    B. 2.0 m    C. 3.0 m    D. 4.0 m

UTME CHEMISTRY - (40 QUESTIONS)

1. You are provided with five gas jars containing SO₂, CO₂, H₂, CO and NO respectively. Select a test from A to D which will identify ANY ONE of the gases completely. 

A. pass each gas into lime water
B. pass each gas into water and test with litmus paper
C. pass each gas into concentrated sulphuric acid
D. expose each gas to atmospheric air

2. A gas jar was inverted over burning yellow phosphorus floating over water in a beaker. After burning, the water level was found to rise in the gas jar. The water level rises because _____ 

A. pressure inside the gas jar is greater than pressure outside it
B. the air in the gas jar had been used up by burning
C. oxygen in the gas jar had been used up by burning
D. nitrogen in the gas jar had been used up by burning

3. Which of the following substances would you see as an indicator in the titration of sodium carbonate solution against hydrochloric acid (complete neutralisation)?  

A. Litmus paper      B. Phenol-phthalein       C. Methyl orange    D. Universal indicator

4. The IUPAC name for


   is _______

A. 2-methylbut-3-ene    B. 2-methylbut-4-ene   C. 3-methylbut-2-ene    D. 3-methylbut-1-ene

5. When carbon dioxide is bubbled into limewater a white precipitate ¡s formed. If the passage of the gas is continued the precipitate disappears. The reason for this is ______ 

A. calcium carbonates formed which on reaction dissolves
B. calcium hydrogen carbonate is precipitated and then dissolves
C. calcium carbonate is formed which on reaction with further carbon dioxide forms soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate
D. concentration of the solution has occurred with the deposition of calcium hydroxide

6. The size (diameters) of five atoms are in the order R < T < W < X < Y, Y being largest. If each atom has an electron situated on its circumference, and neglecting other factors, which of the atoms will lose its electron most reluctantly?  

A. R    B. T    C. W   D. X

7. Which of the following contains two amphoteric oxides?  

A. Sodium oxide Zinc oxide, Magnesium oxide
B. Aluminium oxide, Calcium oxide, Zinc oxide
C. Potassium oxide, Lithium oxide, Carbon dioxide
D. Silver oxide, Lead oxide, Sodium oxide

8. Which are the correct IUPAC names for H-CO₂ CH₃ and CH ≡ CH

A. Methyl methanoate and ethene
B. Metanoic acid and ethyne
C. Ethyl methanoate and ethyne
D. Methyl methanoate and ethyne

9. Which of the following statements applies during the electrolysis of sodium hydroxide solution using platinum electrodes?  

A. Na⁺ ions are discharged at the cathode
B. Hydrogen ions are discharged at the anode
C. The concentration of sodium hydroxide decreases at both electrode compartments
D. The concentration of sodium hydroxide increases at the cathode only

10. Helium atoms are chemically unreactive because ______

A. there are no electrons around the nucleus
B. the number of protons equals the number of electrons
C. there are equal number of protons and neutrons ¡n the nucleus
D. the outer electron shell is completely filled

11. The reaction of zinc with copper (II) ions in aqueous solution can be represented as follows:  

Cu²⁺_(aq) + Zn_(s)  Cu_(s) + Zn²⁺_(aq).

Which of the following is the most complete description of this reaction?

A. Copper (II) ions are being reduced.
B. Copper (II) ions are being reduced and zinc oxidized.
C. Copper (II) ions and zinc are being reduced.
D. Copper (II) ions and zinc are being oxidized

12. The following reactions are stages in important industrial processes:

I. N_2(g) + 3H_2(g)  2NH_3(g) ΔH is negative
II. 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g)  2SO_3(g) ΔH is negative
III. N_2(g) + O_2(g)  2NO_(g) ΔH is positive

Which of the above forward reactions is favoured by  

(i) a decrease in the concentration of the pressure and
(ii) an increase in temperature?

A. I    B. II   C. III    D. I and II

13. The reaction between hydrogen and iodine may be represented by the equation H_2(g) + I_2(g)  2HI_(g), and is exothermic. Therefore _____ 

A. an increase ¡n temperature favours the forward reaction
B. an increase ¡n pressure favours the backward reaction
C. both pressure and temperature must be increased to favour the forward reaction
D. a decrease in temperature will favour the forward reaction

14. Five compounds R, T, W, X, and Y form the following compounds:  

i. a basic hydride R.H,
ii. anacidic hydride YH,
iii. amphoteric oxide W₂O₃, XO₂.

Which of the elements is an alkali?  

A. R    B. T   C. W   D. X

15. The oxidation state of manganese in potassium permanganate is _____ 

A. +7    B. +5    C. +3    D. +2

16. Which of the following statements is true? When the potassium atom forms its ion ______

A. it gains one electron and becomes neutral
B. its atomic number decreases
C. it achieves electronic configuration of argon
D. it loses one proton

17. Which of the following substances are all made by the process of polymerization?

A. Nylon and soap.
B. Ethanoic acid, margarine and ethanol
C. Nylon and artificial rubber
D. Soap and butane

18. In the manufacture of iron in the blast furnace, iron (lll) oxide is mixed with coke and limestone, and different reactions occur in the process. Which of the following statements is true with respect to these reactions?  

A. The coke is a powerful reducing agent and easily converts the iron oxide to iron.
B. The calcium carbonate reacts with SiO₂, an earthly impurity in the ore, to form calcium silicate
C. The coke will react with the iron produced to form steel
D. All the carbon dioxide required in the process comes from the decomposition of the calcium carbonate

19. In the extraction of aluminium from purified bauxite by electrolysis, cryolite is used because ______ 

A. it makes bauxite a better conductor of electricity
B. it makes bauxite melt at a lower temperature
C. it makes aluminium purer
D. it prevents aluminium from getting oxidized

20. The empirical formula of an oxide of nitrogen containing 30.4 per cent of nitrogen is _____ (N = 14.0, O = 16.O). 

A. N₂O   B. NO    C. NO₂    D. N₂O

21. The structural formula of ethanoic acid is ______

22. Bronze is an alloy of ______ 

A. copper, zinc and nickel
B. aluminium and copper
C. copper and zinc
D. tin and copper

23. If chlorine gas is bubbled into water and then this yellowish-green coloured solution is exposed to bright sunlight for a while:  

A. the solution will give out chlorine gas and hydrogen chloride gas
B. the solution will produce chlorine gas and oxygen
C. the solution will give out oxygen thereby producing hypochlorous acid
D. the solution will give out oxygen gas leaving behind aqueous hydrochloric acid

24. When a piece of charcoal enclosed in a cylinder containing air is ignited _____ 

A. the total volume of air is increased
B. the relative amount of oxygen present is increased
C. the relative amount of nitrogen present is decreased
D. the relative amount of carbon dioxide present is increased

25. Weighed salts Y and Z were left exposed in the laboratory overnight. In the morning Y had gained weight, and Z had become liquid. What conclusion could be drawn about the nature of the two salts?

A. Z is efflorescent
B. Y and Z are efflorescent
C. Y and Z are deliquescent.
D. Y and Z are hygroscopic

26.

0.1 Faraday of electricity was passed through a solution of copper (II) sulphate. The maximum weight of copper deposited on the cathode would be ______ (Cu = 64) 

A. 3.2 g   B. 32.0 g    C. 16.0 g    D. 6.4

27. Which one of these compounds will NOT give an oxygen gas on heating?  

A. Ammonium nitrate     B. Hydrogen peroxide     C. Zinc nitrate     D. Sodium nitrate

28. Calcium hydroxide and ammonium chloride when heated together will give an important product. This compound may be obtained dry by _______ 

A. dissolving it ¡n water, recrystallizing it, and then drying in the oven
B. passing it through a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
C. passing it through concentrated sulphuric acid
D. passing it through calcium oxide

29.

50 cm³ of hydrogen are sparked with 20 cm³ of oxygen at 100°C and 1 atmosphere. The total volume of the residual gases in ______ 

A. 50 cm³    B. 10 cm³      C. 40 cm³       D. 30 cm³

30. When ammonium, potassium and calcium carbonates are each separately heated _____ 

A. none of them will decompose
B. each of them will decompose to give carbon dioxide and the respective oxide
C. ammonium carbonate will decompose to give carbon dioxide, water and ammonia.
D. only ammonium carbonate and calcium carbonate will decompose to carbon dioxide and the respective oxide

31.

12 g of solid potassium chlorate (KCIO₃) were added to 40 g of water and heated to dissolve all the solid. As the solution cools, crystals of potassium chlorate started forming at 66°C. The solubility of potassium chlorate at 66°C is therefore _____

A. 66    B. 33    C. 30    D. 20

32. In the redox reaction 2Fe²⁺ + Cl₂ → 2Fe³⁺ + 2Cl^-  

A. Cl₂ is reduced because it has lost electrons
B. Cl₂ is reduced because its oxidation number has decreased
C. Cl₂ is reduced because its molecule is changed to two ions
D. Fe²⁺ is reduced because it has lost electrons

33. The reaction 3C_(s) + 2Fe₂O_3(s) = 4Fe_(s) + 3CO_2(g); ΔH = 46.0 kJ is ____ 

A. adiabatic    B. isobaric   C. endothermic    D. exothermic

34. Starch can be converted to ethyl alcohol by _____

A. distillation    B. fermentation    C. isomerisation   D cracking

35. Two metallic ions associated with hard water are ______

A. copper and zinc
B. magnesium and silver
C. calcium and magnesium
D. potassium and tin

36. An anhydride is _______ 

A. a compound which has no water of crystallization
B. an oxide whose solution in water has a pH greater than 7
C. an oxide whose solution in water has a pH less than 7
D. an oxide that has hydrogen atoms

37. The vapour density of a gas may be defined as _______

A. the mass of a unit volume of the gas compared to an equal volume of water vapour
B. the mass of a unit volume of the gas compared to an equal volume of hydrogen
C. the mass of a unit volume of the gas compared to an equal volume of oxygen
D. the mass of a unit volume of the gas minus the vapour pressure of water

38. In which of the following reactions is sulphur dioxide acting as an oxidizing agent?  

A. SO₂ + 2HNO₃  H₂SO₄ + NO₂ + Heat
B. 2SO₂ + 2H₂O + O₂  2H₂SO₄.
C. SO₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂  H₂SO₄ + 2HCl.
D. SO₂ + 2H₂S  3S + 2H₂O

39. The solution of a sample in a tube will be identified as a chloride if it gives _____ 

A. a white precipitate on addition of AgNO₃, and barium chloride solutions
B. a white precipitate when acidified with HCl, and then AgNO solution added
C. a white precipitate when acidified with dilute HNO₃ and then AgNO₃ solution added.
D. a white precipitate when acidified with dilute H₂SO₄ and then barium nitrate solution added

40. Hydrogenation may be effected by _______ 

A. the removal of hydrogen from an alkane in the presence of a catalyst
B. the addition of hydrogen to an alkane in the presence of a catalyst
C. the addition of hydrogen to an alkyne
D. the removal of hydrogen from an alkyne

UTME MATHEMATICS (40 QUESTIONS)

1. 

In the diagram above, O is the centre of the circle, POM is a diameter and ∠MNQ = 42°. Calculate ∠QMP.

A. 42°    B. 48°    C. 132°    D. 138°

2. Find the value of p, if the line which passes through (-1, -p) and (-2p, 2) is parallel, to the line 2y + 8x - 17 = 0

A.      B.     C.       D.

3. Solve the equation for all positive values of θ less than 360^o, 3 tan θ + 2 = -1

A. 135^o or 315^o     B. 45^o or 135^o     C. 315^o or 45^o     D. 315^o or 180^o

4. Given log 2 = 0.69, log 3 = 1.10 and log 7 = 1.90 all to a fixed base, find log 10.5 to the same base, without using tables.

A.1.03     B. 2.31     C. 3.69     D. 10.5

5. Simplify as much as possible



A.   B. x + 1      C. 10x + 6      D. 5x + 3

6. 

In the diagram above, PQ is parallel to RS. What is the value of α + β + γ?

A. 360°   B. 200°    C. 180°    D. 90°

7. If y = 3 sin (-4x),    is ______

A. -12x cox (-4x)    B. -12x cos (-4x)    C. -12 cos (-4x)    D. 12 sin (-4x)

8. 


In the figure above, PS = SR and RX is a tangent to the circle at R, ∠QRX is equal to 72^o. Find ∠SPR

A. 20^o      B. 36^o     C. 72^o     D. 30^o

9. An airplane flies due north from airports P to Q and then flies due east to R. If Q is equidistant from P and R, find the bearing of P from R.

A. 090°    B. 135°    C. 225°    D. 270°

10. The expression x³ - 4x² + cx + d is such that x + 1 is its factor, and its value is 1 when x = -2. Find c and d.

A. c = 4 and d = -9      B. c = -4 and d = 9      C. c = -20 and d = -15      D. c = 2o and d = -15

11. If , find the maximum value of

A. 4     B. 1     C.     D.

12. If sin θ = and θ is less than 90^o,  calculate 

A.      B.      C.      D.

13. Find the missing numerator - -   = 

A. -1     B.      C.      D. 3(1 - 5x)

14. If a function is defined by f(x + 1) = 3x² - x + 4, find f(0)

A. 4     B. 6     C. 8     D. 10

15. Find the slope of the curve y = 2x² + 5x - 3 at (1, 4)

A. 4    B. 6    C. 7    D. 9

16.


The angles marked in the figure above are measured in degrees. Find x

A. 30^o     B. 90^o     C. 60^o     D. 15^o

17. If x varies inversely as y, and y varies directly as the square root of z, and z varies directly as  , write down in words how x varies with w.

A. x varies inversely as w²
B. x varies directly as w²
C. x varies directly as w
D. x varies inversely as w

18.

XYZ is a circle with center O and radius 7 cm. Find the area of the shaded region. [π = ]

A. 1.93 cm²    B. 77 cm²    C. 38 cm²    D. 14 cm²

19. Determine the maximum value of y = 3x² - x³

A. 0    B. 2    C. 4   D. 6

20. A triangle has vertices P(-1, 6), Q(-3, -4) and R(1, -4). Find the midpoints of PQ and QR respectively.

A. (0,-2) and (-1-4)     B. (-1 , 0) and (—1,-1)     C. (-2, 1) and (0, 1)     D. (-2, 1) and (-1, -4)

21.


Find the mean of the distribution above.

A. 1    B. 2    C. 3   D. 4

22. Write the decimal number 39 to base 2

A. 10011    B. 110111    C. 111001    D. 100101    E. 19.5.

23. On a pie chat, there are four sectors of which three angles are 45°, 90° and 135°. If the smallest sector represents N 28.00, how much is the largest sector?

A. N 96.00    B. N 84.00    C. N 48.00    D. N 42.00

24. By how much will the mean of 30, 56, 31, 55, and 44 less than the median?

A. 0.80     B. 0.50     C. 0.33    D. 0.17

25. 

Find the area of the shaded segment in the figure shown above.

A.       B.       C . π      D.  π -

26. Suppose x varies inversely as y, y varies directly as the square of t and x = 1 when t = 3 Find x when t =

A. 81     B. 27     C.      D.  .

27. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5. Find the standard deviation

A.      B.      C. 2     D. 3

28. Find the value of x satisfying the equation    -    <    + 

A. x 7½      C. x < 7½      D. x < -5

29.

7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years. If 6 new pupils of average age 11 years join the class, what is the average age of the pupils now in the class?

A. 13 years    B. 12 years 7½ months     C. 13 years 5 months    D. 13 years 10 months

30.


The result of tossing a fair dice 120 times is summarized above. Find the value of x.

A. 19    B. 20    C. 21    D. 222

31. Given y = x³ − x² − 4,  find    at  x  =  4

A. 38    B. 39    C. 40   D. 41

32. Given y = x³ − x² − 4, find

A. 3x - 2      B. 3 - 2x²     C. 3x² - 2x     D. 3 - 2x

33. If sin x^o = , what is sin (90 - x)^o ?

A.       B.  1 -       C.      D.

34.


The histogram above shows the ages of the victims of a pollution. How many people were involved in the pollution?

A. 15   B. 18    C. 20    D. 21

35. A sum of money invested at 5 % per annum simple interest amounts to $ 285.20 after 3 years. How long will it take the same sum to amount to $ 434.00 at 7½ % per annum simple interest?

A. 7½ years     B. 10 years     C. 5 years     D. 12 years

36. If sine x equals cosine x, what is x in radians?

A.      B.      C.      D.

37. The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r : t. In 1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25% and that of a packet of sugar by 10%. Their new ratio is now ______

A. 40r : 50t     B. 44r : 50t     C. 25r : 22t     D. 55r : 44t

38. If ⁿP₃ - 6(ⁿC₄) = 0, find the value of n.

A. 5    B. 6    C. 7   D. 8

39. A bag contains 5 black balls and 3 red balls. Two balls are picked randomly without replacement . What is the probability that a black and a red ball are picked?

A.    B.      C.      D.

40. Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the units digit, and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits.

A. 24    B. 42     C. 74     D. 47